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Not just that. He also very clearly requires there to be the incitement to physical violence:
I agree with the end of the paragraph. His definition of intolerance includes the incitement to violence, and what he argues follows logically.
Read it again. He's using incitement to violence as a consequence to to be avoided, not as a driving factor.
He goes on:
He was writing at the end of WW2. He was saying it would have been fine to stop the Nazis at the start, before they were inciting violence because they couldn't be reasoned with.
It's clear you don't agree with his position , and that's okay. You can just disagree with him.
He's explaining the why. That statement is there for a reason, and your reading implies it's superfluous.
The National Socialist German Workers' Party employed violence well before they achieved power. Popper's warnings are obviously an allusion to the Brownshirts.
This is catty. Like a little girl. I've extended you courtesy and I would appreciate reciprocity.
Catty? "Like a little girl"? The hell is wrong with you people that you're looking so hard for insult where none is intended? I apologize for being too casual in my assertion that I think you're bending the work to fit your views instead of explaining why you think his views on tolerance aren't correct.
Yes, I'm saying he included that statement because it's the "why". Suppression of intolerant speech can be justified because it can lead to violence. The violence or incitement thereto isn't a precondition that justifies suppression in his view, but the end state to be avoided.
I'm not sure what you're saying by drawing a distinction between the Nazis and the brown shirts or spelling out the party name. I know the Nazis were violent before they had political power.
That doesn't really have anything to do with what I said.