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[Ethics] Why do people condemn Zoophilia on the basis of other animal's inability to consent but those same people kill animals without asking for their consent? Why such inconsistency? (lemmy.world)

submitted 3 weeks ago by when@lemmy.world to c/asklemmy@lemmy.ml

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[–] when@lemmy.world -1 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

Clarifying; "Animals can't consent thus any sexual activity becomes rape" is related to Animal-Human copulation. As zoophilia was mentioned in previous sentence.

From animals' perspective, Non-consensual killing is worst than Non-consensual sex (Rape). Their similarities lies in the negation of consent by the humans and both actions are unjust. Humans are just giving out disingenuous arguments to hide their crime of killing innocent animals because they benefit from such injustices.

[–] mojo_raisin@lemmy.world 1 points 1 week ago

Sorry for the late reply, I've been away from Lemmy.

Animals killing other animals for food is what complex life if based on. This is a necessary part of complex life. Rape is not. This is a key difference. Should species that eat other living things let themselves go extinct so as to not violate consent? Should they sacrifice their health eating species inappropriate foods in an attempt to minimize violations of consent? Even if you think this, it won't happen, living things are the result of successful past generations, and a species that sacrifices itself to be nice to it's prey would not evolve.

Thinking of participation in the food chain as a "crime" is silly on many levels. I was a vegetarian in my youth and thought many of the same silly things as you until I thought about things more deeply and realistically.