Socialism

It took a once in a century flood, the collapse of the USSR, and sanctions for DPRK to reach those numbers. The US achieved that while still having food to spare, what an amazing system.

Let me add in the following about my country, Norway, whose material conditions I know all to well: There is way too much wealth disparity and rising poverty, but this infographic does not reflect a material shortage of food, of which there is on the other hand an over-abundance of to the detriment of the global south. Recall that we produce food for a billion more people than what exists, yet a billion starve due to the global north's over-indulgence and waste.

The main reasons for the rise in death to malnutrition are eating disorders such as anorexia. This reflects a wholly different contradiction which we should focus on instead of misrepresenting material reality.

EDIT: After some reading it seems the rise is due to a change in the policy of journalling deaths. These are probably old people not eating enough because they are in the process of dying. The important bit with regards to where starvation actually causes death, and not merely corrolates with it, remains true.

That slight raise is arguably relatively normal-ish variation. It probably represents the problems with capitalist lack of social care and resources to some degree. But 99.99% of people are still eating.

It's still bad, it's still unacceptable, it's still ridiculous for a wealthy nation and shouldn't happen, but it's also not huge, it's a tiny fraction.

To parse the math, if it keeps rising that would be concerning. But look at the scale... that "3" That the USA reaches isn't percent. It represents circa 1 in 33,000 people which equates to about 10,000 people in the entire USA.

Whereas according to the same source, North Korea's famine produced at least 450 sufferers every 100,000. That, represented 1 in 222 people.

Weirdly this actually doesn't tally with a lot of other sources. So I'm left scratching my head about it somewhat. The above reference suggests only 100,000 people suffered from the famine in North Korea yet, the minimum other sources put as having died in said famine is 360,000 and the maximum of 2,000,000.

Am I missing something? This does not compute.

Edit: Ah the context I was missing was the famine occurred over multiple years. Each year was 420 per 100,000 or below out of 20 million.