this post was submitted on 26 Nov 2025
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History Memes

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[–] D1re_W0lf@piefed.world 69 points 19 hours ago* (last edited 19 hours ago) (8 children)

That remind me of this.

(Credits in the image)

[–] infinite_goop@lemmy.world 3 points 2 hours ago

I just see Nyan Cat

[–] smeg@feddit.uk 2 points 4 hours ago (1 children)

Hmm, why did the proto-I turn into Z and the proto-Z turn into I? And why did proto-φ not turn into Φ? I do love this graphic though!

[–] BlameTheAntifa@lemmy.world 2 points 2 hours ago

As written language spread through existing spoken languages, changes are made to match the spoken sounds and languages that have different pronunciation requirements repurpose, drop, create, or modify characters to fit their phonetic needs.

[–] MonkderVierte@lemmy.zip 2 points 5 hours ago (2 children)

But how did the V become a U?

[–] Uruanna@lemmy.world 2 points 2 hours ago* (last edited 2 hours ago)

Pronunciation evolution differentiated U and V more and people started differentiating that with an extra sign. As in, the Roman V was pronounced kinda like both and not like today's V - the Roman symbol V is not the modern letter V. You may notice that modern media about ancient Rome have been making Vs sound more like Us.

[–] prole@lemmy.blahaj.zone 2 points 4 hours ago

It looks like V became U, V, & W

[–] edgemaster72@lemmy.world 24 points 14 hours ago

Pour one out for the homies we lost along the way

⨂ 𐤎 ʍ ϕ ⲯ

[–] RememberTheApollo_@lemmy.world 3 points 13 hours ago (2 children)

Hm. Wonder why the Romans “flipped” the letters.

[–] HeyThisIsntTheYMCA@lemmy.world 3 points 9 hours ago

Easier to read in your rear view

[–] MirthfulAlembic@lemmy.world 3 points 13 hours ago

My guess would be it's easier to write quickly like that when you write left to right.

[–] Tabooki@lemmy.world 8 points 17 hours ago (2 children)

Notice there was no letter J around the time of Jesus. Hrmmm 😆

[–] criticon@lemmy.ca 11 points 17 hours ago (1 children)

That's why some crosses have "INRI" written: Iesus Nazarenus, Rex Iudaeorum

[–] Tabooki@lemmy.world 11 points 16 hours ago (1 children)

The name "Jesus" comes from the Greek Iēsous, which is a transliteration of the Hebrew name Yeshua (or sometimes the longer form, Yehoshua), meaning "Yahweh saves."

[–] Skullgrid@lemmy.world 4 points 5 hours ago

“Yahweh saves.”

... so Jesus is basically "God Saves" so "Jesus Saves" is just "God Saves Saves"?

[–] sik0fewl@lemmy.ca 2 points 17 hours ago

Hence Iesus Nazarenus in Latin.

[–] Jarme@jlai.lu 8 points 19 hours ago (2 children)

Any reason why Romans mirrored some letters ?

[–] KSPAtlas@sopuli.xyz 24 points 18 hours ago (1 children)

It was likely caused by the transition from right-to-left to left-to-right writing

So basically, while Egyptian hieroglyphs didn't have a specific writing direction, boustrophedon was a very common system, where you'd start writing in one direction, and then switch direction on the next line (so the first letter of the second line is right under the last letter of the first line).

The Phonecian script, however, started to stick to right-to-left for writing. When the greeks first adapted the Phonecian alphabet for the Greek language, they wrote in right-to-left and boustrophedon. When writing boustrophedon, they would flip the letters to match the writing direction. When left to right started to gain popularity, the flipped letters were used, and left-to-right is now what is used in the Greek alphabet and its descendants.

[–] pressanykeynow@lemmy.world 2 points 13 hours ago (1 children)

And why did they swap I and Z?

[–] KSPAtlas@sopuli.xyz 3 points 7 hours ago (1 children)

Z was temporarily removed from the latin alphabet, and when it was readded, it was added to the end

[–] pressanykeynow@lemmy.world 1 points 28 minutes ago
[–] pacmondo@sh.itjust.works 5 points 18 hours ago

Sometimes, you just gotta go for style points.

[–] grue@lemmy.world 4 points 18 hours ago (1 children)

Anybody else find it weird how the letter forms changed a bunch in BC and then hardly at all in CE?

[–] jaybone@lemmy.zip 5 points 14 hours ago

Maybe because at that point the Roman Empire controlled most of that part of the world? Also maybe literacy was increasing, requiring more consistency? Then as the Roman Empire declined centuries later different cultures only iterated in their own language? Just some guesses.