I've been having a lotta discussions around the Ukrianian Russian conflict and exploring the history with my friend. But they keep bringing up a claim that neither I nor they can find the source for.

The Claim is; Russia, Donetsk, Crimea and Luhansk at some point have suppressed the Ukrainian language. Specifically Since 2014.

Ukraines suppression of Russian is not contested, nor is Putins position on Ukranian identity.

Is there any proof of such a thing happening? I've taken the discussions previously as if its true because I don't really know enough about the conflict but after extensive searching I cant find anything.

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[–] 0 points 1 month ago* (4 children)

yes, this is something that happens in almost every euro conflict. my grandparents had to study russian as a secondary language but after communism ended that changed to english. if im not wrong theres this thing where most ukrainians can understand russian bc theyre exposed to it while russian speakers cant.

its not to say that russia is uniquely evil for this. we communicate in english bc of the british empire and the united states

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  • [–] 4 points 1 month ago (2 children)

    Russian language was used as a way to communicate with other people. Like english today, a way I can communicate with someone from Italy as example. I remember Lenin writing about the question, what will be the "common language". He came to the conclusion, that it would develop naturally through trade. Learning Russian became mandatory later.

    My father, ethnic Russian, learned Kazakh language in school as secondary language. He can understand Ukrainian and Belarus. Not speak, but understand quite well. However I cant understand it, probably because I start to forget more and more my own mother tounge.

    Today english is also preferable to learn in Russia.

    Don't understand your downvotes

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